Rambam
Rabbi Yitzchok Etshalom
Talmud Torah 6:1
1. It is a Mitzva to show deference (*Hiddur*) to any *Talmid
Hakham* (lit. - "student of a sage" - general usage is
"scholar"), even if he is not your teacher, as it says: "You
shall rise before the aged, and show *Hiddur* in the presence of
a *Zaqen* " (Vayyiqra [Leviticus] 19:32a); *Zaqen* (which
literally means "old person") [is an acrostic for] *Zeh Qanah
Hokhmah* (This one has acquired knowledge).
From what point are we obligated to stand "in his presence"? When
he is within four *Amot* (1 Amah = btwn. 18-24") - until he
passes from his presence.
Q1: General question about this chapter: How is the honor due
scholars different, conceptually and practically, from that due
one's teacher?
YE (Yitz Etshalom): This may be subject to a
dispute between R and the (anonymous) author of Sefer haHinuch.
Note that R introduced the honor for one's teacher (TT 5:1) as
"similar to" - and more stringent than - honor/awe due parents.
It would seem that R sees one as the extension of the other
(based on the *Kal vaHomer* reasoning outlined in 5:1).
Conversely, the Hinuch (#257) in addressing the Mitzva of honor
for scholars, adds the following: "...regarding the honor of the
teacher [incumbent] upon the student, there is a great addition
over the honor that you are obligated towards any other
scholar..."; we see that he sees the honor for your own teacher
as a "more serious form" of honor for scholars - and not an
extension of filial responsibility towards parents. Therefore,
we may understand the practical differences between these two
relationships, according to the Hinuch, as "stronger forms" of
honor/awe.
According to R, however, it is clearly a different story. Note
that R does not allow for *Mechila* (forgiving) the honor for a
scholar, however he does allow (5:11) for such *Mechila* when it
comes to teacher. R does not prescribe honor for scholars in a
bathhouse etc. (Halakha 2, below), however, such a parameter is
not mentioned in connection with honor for teacher. One way of
explaining these differences is as follows:
Honor for teacher is an extension of honor for parents - it is a
personal relationship with that parent/teacher and what they have
done for you which obligates that honor/awe. Their role in
bringing you into this world, through this world and to the World
to Come (see 5:1) create a permanent obligation of gratitude.
Therefore, just as parents may forgive that honor - in specific
circumstances or for specific forms of honor - so may the
teacher. Since it is a "debt" which you owe the parent/teacher,
they may forgive that debt. In addition, that debt exists in any
situation - even a bathroom etc. Also, once we see the
teacher/parent, we must stand up, as their contribution plays a
central role in who we are at all times - and it is honor for
their person which we are expressing, which is manifested as long
as they are within eyesight.
Honor for scholars is an extension of honor for the Torah, as the
Gemara (Kiddushin 33b) infers: If we stand up for her [the
Torah's] students, we certainly should stand up for her [a Sefer
Torah]! R himself, in the "Koteret" (introductory heading) of
Hilkhot Talmud Torah, refers to the Mitzva of "Honoring her [the
Torah's] teachers and scholars". Therefore, we are honoring the
scholar as a medium for honoring Torah - it is not the personal
relationship with this scholar that motivates the honor, rather
what he represents in and of himself. Therefore, there is no
room for *Mechila* - it is not his honor, therefore he hasn't the
right to forgive it. It is also inappropriate to show this honor
in a place where the Mitzva of Talmud Torah may not take place -
such as a lavatory/bathhouse. This also explains why we only
stand up when he is within 4 Amot (as opposed to "as soon as you
see him" - which is the case for teacher/parent - see also MT
Mamrim 6:3) - since 4 Amot is considered a person's "personal
space" (see BT Bava Metzia 10a) - that scholar has now brought
Torah into your personal space and you must stand up in
recognition of that. There is one additional explanation to the
"4 Amot" rule - whereas standing for your own teacher is an
expression of your personal debt of gratitude, the honor accorded
a scholar is also a public statement, as the Hinuch explains -
"...so that others will see and become inspired..." - this is
only efficacious when the scholar is close to you and others see
the connection of your standing and his stature. [special thanks
to Tzvi Pittinsky for his contributions.]
Q2: When the Rabbis expound upon a word - such as *Zaqen*,
turning it into something other than the "normal" meaning - what
happens to the "normal" read? Are we still obligated to stand up
for an old person who is not a scholar? Or does the exegetical
read overrule the "straight" read?
YE: Regarding the practical question of rising in honor of an
older person who is not a scholar, R codifies (TT 6:9) that we
even rise for a non-scholarly senior citizen (based on the Gemara
in Kiddushin 32b). The Hinuch explains that even such a person
has gained much life-experience and that is a form of wisdom
which is also worthy of respect.
As to the general question of exegetical "reads" overruling
"straight" text, this is a fairly complex issue. Several
interesting points in that regard: In the Gemara (Yevamot 24a),
we read that even though in the rest of the Torah *ein miqra
yotze miydei p'shuto* (the import of a verse is not subverted
from its simple meaning) - in this one case (of the child of a
Levirate marriage taking on the name of the dead brother), it is
subverted to the exegetical meaning. That would seem to indicate
that in every other case, we always adopt the simple reading of
the text (in addition to the exegetical interpretations). This,
however, is not so clear.
For example, in the Torah (Shemot [Exodus] 22:1-2, in the case of
burglary, we read: "If a thief is found breaking in, and is
beaten to death, no bloodguilt is incurred; but if it happens
after sunrise, bloodguilt is incurred." (In other words, if the
burglar is challenged by the homeowner who preemptively kills him
NOT IN SELF-DEFENSE, the homeowner is innocent. But if this
confrontation took place during the day, he is guilty.) The
Talmud (BT Sanhedrin 72a) interprets the phrase "if it happens
after sunrise" as meaning "if it is clear as day that the burglar
intends no harm, do not kill him, otherwise, kill him".
Rambam (MT Geneva 9:8) rules according to this exegesis to the
exclusion of the simple meaning: The homeowner is innocent for
killing him whether the confrontation took place during the day
or at night (in 9:10 he cites the exception of the burglar who
you know will not become violent). RABD (9:8) challenges R's
ruling as follows: "...even though the Sages interpreted 'if it
happens after sunrise' metaphorically - if the matter is clear to
you as sun that he is not a physical threat etc. nevertheless,
*ein miqra yotze miydei p'shuto* (the import of a verse is not
subverted from its simple meaning) - i.e. during the day he is
not allowed to kill him..."
Seemingly, we have a dispute between Rambam and RABD regarding
this exact issue. [Thanks to Shlomo Kapustin for pointing me to
this Rambam/RABD].
Minchat Hinuch (#232) raises another interesting possibility: In
the Torah, we are warned not to "Place a stumbling block before a
blind person" (Vayyiqra [Leviticus] 19: 14). The Sages
interpreted this in various ways: in Torat Kohanim, it is
understood to be a warning against fraud, since the defrauded
person is "blind" in this matter. In BT Avodah Zarah 6b, it is
expanded to include abetting another to violate a transgression.
Minhat Hinuch raises the question that, since the Sages explained
this prohibition in a non-literal fashion, would someone violate
this prohibition of he were to place a rock in front of a blind
person? His discussion, as well as the sources he cites, are well
worth reading for anyone interested in pursuing the issue.
Q3: Why do we stand up when he is four Amot away? (Why not from
when we see him - or when he can see us?)
YE: See answer to Q1 above.
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